well, assuming a control factor of both choices in partners are HIV+, then the risk is equivalent. No difference in the chances of infection, which are... while greater than none.. still small in the great scheme of infectiousness. Its still like playing russian roulette, you just have have one bullet rather than the 4-5 you would have on the other end. Now if you had an open sore on your cock, which would then guarantee direct bloodstream contact with the infected persons blood... your risk increases exponentially.

now if you were asking amongnst general population, and assuming an unknown partner status, then statistically your risk would be higher with the male as gay males are a demographic with a higher rate of infection. Of course we can also break that down into race too, as african americans also have a higher rate of infection, and locality can be a issue as well. Unprotected anal sex with a black woman from haiti vs a white male from Phoenix... youre safer statistically with the guy.

of course your question was based on a known status... so that last paragraph was irrelevant, but just used to answer a possible followup hypothetical in that particular vein, and point out the many different factors at play.